Registration, Code of Conduct & General Obligations of Merchant Bankers in India
20 questions. Each answer is explained.
Question 1 of 10Practice · Series IX — Merchant Banking
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Learn these topics
More units in NISM Series IX
- Introduction to Capital Market15
- Introduction to the Merchant Banking20
- Issue Management – Important Terms15
- Issue Management – Process and Underwriting25
- Issue Management – General Obligations of Merchant Bankers and Due Diligence20
- Other Merchant Banking Activities-Mergers, Acquisitions & Takeovers20
- Other Merchant Banking Activities – Disinvestment, Buyback of Equity Shares15
Exam format
| Questions | 100 · 1 mark each |
|---|---|
| Duration | 120 min · 2 hours |
| Pass mark | 60% · 60 of 100 marks |
| Negative marking | 25% · 0.25 marks off per wrong answer |
| Certificate validity | 3 years · from the date of the examination |
| Marks for this unit | Not published by NISM |
NISM Series IX Merchant Banking
Exam rules read on NISM's site on 17 October 2026. Check the current rules on NISM's site (opens in a new tab)
What these answers assume, and when it was last checked
Each question uses the rules listed below. We last checked them on 5 September 2026. A Budget or SEBI circular can change a rate, lot size or expiry day. If a rule changes before your exam, treat the linked questions as out of date and check NISM's current workbook.
- NSE uses Tuesday expiry and BSE uses Thursday expiry. This applies from 1 September 2025.
- The January 2026 index lot sizes are NIFTY 65, BANKNIFTY 30, FINNIFTY 60, MIDCPNIFTY 120 and NIFTYNXT50 25.
- The October 2024 SEBI framework sets a minimum index contract value of Rs 15–20 lakh. Each exchange may list one weekly benchmark index.
- Option buyers pay the premium upfront from 1 February 2025. A short index option has an extra 2% Extreme Loss Margin on expiry day from 20 November 2024.
- Equity short-term capital gains are taxed at 20%. Long-term gains are taxed at 12.5% above Rs 1.25 lakh. Both rates apply from 23 July 2024.
- F&O income is non-speculative business income in ITR-3. NSE equity derivatives trade from 9:15 a.m. to 3:40 p.m.
- The final ten-minute session began on 3 August 2026. It aligns with the cash market Closing Auction Session.
- Most Securities Transaction Tax questions test the base and who pays. On an option sale, it is the premium and the seller pays. On a futures sale, it is the traded value and the seller pays.
- On exercise, Securities Transaction Tax uses intrinsic value: settlement price minus strike price. The buyer pays it.
- Two questions test the current rate. From 1 April 2026, option sales carry 0.15% on the premium and futures sales carry 0.05% on traded price. The earlier rates were 0.10% and 0.02% from 1 October 2024.
- This section uses the T+1 rolling settlement cycle. Obligations are fixed on T+1. A short delivery goes to buy-in auction on T+1 and settles on T+2.
- The trade-for-trade surveillance segment uses direct close-out. Funds pay in by 10:30 a.m. and pay out on or after 1:30 p.m. on settlement day.
- Securities pay in to the settlement pool by 10:30 a.m. They pay out directly to the client’s demat account by 3:30 p.m.
- The 3:30 p.m. deadline replaced 1:30 p.m. under SEBI’s 10 October 2024 circular. Direct client credit was required by SEBI’s 5 June 2024 circular.
- The optional T+0 cycle trades until 1:30 p.m. Obligations are fixed by 2:30 p.m. on the trade day. An early pay-in shortage is closed out directly.
- Cash-market Value at Risk margin is six times exponentially weighted moving-average volatility. It has a 9% floor for Group I, a 21.5% floor for Group II, and a fixed 50% or 75% level for Group III.
- Extreme Loss Margin is 3.5% for a share and 2% for a broad-market-index exchange traded fund. Mark-to-market margin is collected before the next day’s trading. The trade-for-trade segment has 100% upfront margin.
- Close-out uses the higher of the highest price from trade day to auction day and 20% above the auction day’s official close.
- A funds shortage costs 0.07% a day. The trading facility is withdrawn at a shortage of Rs 5 lakh or more.
- SCORES allows 21 calendar days, then two 15-day review levels. Online Dispute Resolution moves from conciliation to arbitration after the market participant and SCORES steps.
- At NSE, the Investor Protection Fund limit is Rs 35 lakh per investor for each defaulting or expelled member. This applies to claims arising after 13 August 2024.
- A Basic Services Demat Account has no annual maintenance charge up to Rs 4 lakh of holdings. It costs up to Rs 100 above that, until the Rs 10 lakh eligibility ceiling. These slabs apply from 1 September 2024.
- The rupee pairs are USD-INR, EUR-INR, GBP-INR and JPY-INR. The cross-currency pairs are EUR-USD, GBP-USD and USD-JPY.
- Each contract covers 1,000 units of the foreign currency, except JPY-INR. JPY-INR covers 100,000 yen and is quoted in rupees per 100 yen.
- The tick is 0.25 paise, or Rs 0.0025. It equals Rs 2.50 a contract.
- Rupee pairs trade from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. A monthly contract stops trading at 12:30 p.m. two working days before the expiry month’s last business day.
- Final settlement is in cash at the FBIL reference rate on expiry day. FBIL, Financial Benchmarks India, has published this rate in place of the Reserve Bank since 2018. Premium-style European options are quoted in rupees. The buyer pays the premium in cash on T+1.
- Daily settlement is on T+1 and final settlement is on T+2.
- NSE Clearing circular 026/2020 sets SPAN margin plus Extreme Loss Margin. The futures margin is 0.50% for USD-INR, 0.15% for EUR-INR, 0.25% for GBP-INR and 0.35% for JPY-INR. A short option has 0.75%. These figures apply from 1 June 2020.
- A USD-INR client may hold 6% of total open interest or USD 20 million, whichever is higher. A trading member may hold 15% or USD 100 million.
- A resident user has one USD 100 million equivalent limit across all rupee pairs and exchanges. No document is needed below that limit, but a valid underlying contracted exposure must still exist. This clarification applies from 3 May 2024.
- The currency segment has no Securities Transaction Tax.
The exam figures (questions, time, pass mark, negative marking and certificate validity) come from NISM's own pages, read on 17 October 2026. Timed practice uses the same figures. Study with the official workbook as well.
The written-out answers on this page are hidden while your timed set runs.
All 20 questions on Registration, Code of Conduct & General Obligations of Merchant Bankers in India, with answers
Q1What must a person obtain before acting or holding itself out as a merchant banker?
Option A. A SEBI registration certificate — Correct answer
Option B. Only an exchange trading account
Why it is wrong: A trading account does not authorise merchant-banking activity.
Option C. Only an issuer’s appointment letter
Why it is wrong: A client appointment cannot replace the required SEBI registration.
Option D. Only a company incorporation certificate
Why it is wrong: Incorporation alone does not provide merchant-banker registration.
Answer: A. A SEBI registration certificate is required before acting or holding oneself out as a merchant banker. Remember: A client mandate does not substitute for regulatory registration.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Assuming incorporation automatically authorises merchant-banking services. Separate forming a business from obtaining permission for its regulated activity.
IX-036easyregulatory
Q2Which form is prescribed for an application for merchant-banker registration?
Option A. Form C
Why it is wrong: Form C is not the application form prescribed by Regulation 3(2).
Option B. Form D
Why it is wrong: Form D is not the application form prescribed by Regulation 3(2).
Option C. Form B
Why it is wrong: Form B is used for the registration certificate rather than the application.
Option D. Form A — Correct answer
Answer: D. Form A is the prescribed application form under Regulation 3(2). Remember: The application form and the registration certificate are different documents.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Confusing the certificate format with the application format. Distinguish the application submitted from the certificate later issued.
IX-037easyregulatory
Q3Under the revised category framework, which merchant-banker category can undertake all permitted activities?
Option A. Category III
Why it is wrong: Category III is not a category available under the revised two-category framework.
Option B. Category II
Why it is wrong: Category II excludes public equity issues proposed for main-board listing.
Option C. Category IV
Why it is wrong: Category IV is not a category available under the revised two-category framework.
Option D. Category I — Correct answer
Answer: D. Category I can undertake all permitted activities under the revised registration framework. Remember: Category permissions must be read from the current regulations.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Applying historical four-category descriptions to the revised framework. Use the revised framework rather than historical category descriptions.
IX-038easyregulatory
Q4Which schedule contains the merchant bankers’ Code of Conduct under their registration regulations?
Option A. Schedule IV
Why it is wrong: Schedule IV is not the Code of Conduct referenced by Regulation 13.
Option B. Schedule III — Correct answer
Option C. Schedule II
Why it is wrong: Schedule II contains fees rather than the Code of Conduct.
Option D. Schedule I
Why it is wrong: Schedule I contains forms rather than the Code of Conduct.
Answer: B. Schedule III contains the Code of Conduct that merchant bankers must follow under Regulation 13. Remember: The Code of Conduct is part of the merchant-banker regulatory framework.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Confusing the forms, fees and conduct schedules. Locate the schedule specifically referenced by the conduct obligation.
IX-039easyregulatory
Q5Under the revised definition, what minimum financial-market experience must a designated principal officer have?
Option A. Ten years
Why it is wrong: Ten years exceeds the prescribed minimum and is not the threshold asked.
Option B. Five years — Correct answer
Option C. Three years
Why it is wrong: Three years is below the experience minimum in the revised definition.
Option D. Two years
Why it is wrong: Two years is below the experience minimum in the revised definition.
Answer: B. The designated principal officer must have at least five years of financial-market experience under the revised definition. Remember: The principal-officer role has a specific minimum experience requirement.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Assuming a designation alone satisfies the eligibility definition. Focus on the experience requirement in the current principal-officer definition.
IX-040easyregulatory
Q6What minimum net worth applies to a fresh Category I merchant-banker applicant under the revised framework?
Option A. ₹25 crore
Why it is wrong: ₹25 crore is a transitional Category I figure for existing registrants, not this fresh-applicant threshold.
Option B. ₹10 crore
Why it is wrong: ₹10 crore is the revised Category II net-worth threshold.
Option C. ₹50 crore — Correct answer
Option D. ₹5 crore
Why it is wrong: ₹5 crore is an older requirement and not the revised fresh-applicant threshold.
Answer: C. A fresh Category I applicant must meet the revised minimum net worth of ₹50 crore. Remember: Fresh applicants and existing registrants in transition must not be treated as identical cases.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Applying an existing registrant’s transitional threshold to a fresh application. Distinguish a new applicant from an existing registrant using a transition period.
IX-041easyregulatory
Q7A Category II merchant banker proposes managing a public equity issue for main-board listing. Is this within its revised category permissions?
Option A. No, that activity is specifically excluded — Correct answer
Option B. Yes, provided the issuer consents
Why it is wrong: Issuer consent cannot remove the category restriction.
Option C. No, because Category II may only provide advice
Why it is wrong: Category II is not limited solely to advice under the revised framework.
Option D. Yes, because every public issue is permitted
Why it is wrong: The revised rule expressly excludes this class of public equity issue.
Answer: A. The activity is excluded because Category II cannot undertake public equity issues proposed for main-board listing. Remember: Category II has a specific main-board public-equity exclusion, not an advice-only restriction.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Either ignoring the exclusion or wrongly describing Category II as advisory-only. Read the precise exclusion without adding a broader restriction.
IX-042mediumapplication
Q8How long does a merchant banker’s registration certificate remain valid under Regulation 8(2)?
Option A. For three years from the examination
Why it is wrong: The examination certificate’s validity is not the merchant banker’s registration period.
Option B. Unless suspended or cancelled — Correct answer
Option C. For one year from each issue
Why it is wrong: An issue does not set the registration certificate’s validity.
Option D. Until the first client mandate ends
Why it is wrong: Completion of a mandate does not automatically end registration.
Answer: B. The registration certificate remains valid unless it is suspended or cancelled under the regulations. Remember: NISM certification validity and merchant-banker registration validity are separate matters.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Applying an examination certificate’s expiry period to SEBI registration. Do not confuse a professional examination certificate with intermediary registration.
IX-043mediumregulatory
Q9A merchant banker falls below its applicable minimum net worth. What restriction applies until it meets that requirement again?
Option A. It automatically gains a permanent exemption
Why it is wrong: A net-worth shortfall does not create an exemption.
Option B. It may ignore the shortfall until the next audit
Why it is wrong: The rule does not allow the shortfall to be ignored until audit.
Option C. It cannot take up fresh permitted business — Correct answer
Option D. It may accept fresh work with client consent
Why it is wrong: Client consent cannot override the restriction on fresh business.
Answer: C. The merchant banker cannot take up fresh business under the permitted activities until it meets the applicable net-worth requirement. Remember: Capital adequacy affects the ability to accept new mandates.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Assuming a temporary capital shortfall has no immediate business consequence. Focus on taking on new work while the capital shortfall continues.
IX-044mediumapplication
Q10Which framework does Regulation 6A reference for assessing whether a merchant-banker applicant is fit and proper?
Option A. Schedule I of the Merchant Bankers Regulations, 1992
Why it is wrong: That schedule contains forms rather than the specific fit-and-proper criteria.
Option B. Schedule II of the Merchant Bankers Regulations, 1992
Why it is wrong: That schedule concerns merchant-banker fees rather than the referenced fit-and-proper criteria.
Option C. Schedule III of the Merchant Bankers Regulations, 1992
Why it is wrong: That schedule contains conduct requirements rather than the specific cross-referenced criteria.
Option D. Schedule II of the SEBI Intermediaries Regulations, 2008 — Correct answer
Answer: D. Regulation 6A references Schedule II of the SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 2008 for the fit-and-proper assessment. Remember: Eligibility can depend on a cross-reference to another regulatory framework.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Looking only at the merchant-banker fee or conduct schedules. The fit-and-proper assessment refers to a cross-intermediary framework.
IX-045mediumregulatory
Q11Within how many days must a merchant banker redress an investor grievance under Regulation 28C(1)?
Option A. 30 working days
Why it is wrong: This uses both the wrong period and the wrong type of day.
Option B. 21 trading days
Why it is wrong: The rule uses calendar days rather than trading days.
Option C. 21 calendar days — Correct answer
Option D. 30 calendar days
Why it is wrong: Thirty calendar days is not the current period in Regulation 28C(1).
Answer: C. The merchant banker must redress the grievance within 21 calendar days from receipt under Regulation 28C(1). Remember: A grievance deadline must be read with its specified day-count convention.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Replacing calendar days with trading or working days. Check both the number and whether weekends count.
IX-046mediumregulatory
Q12A merchant banker discovers a material personal interest that conflicts with a client mandate. Which response follows the conduct framework?
Option A. Disclose it only after a complaint is filed
Why it is wrong: Waiting for a complaint does not meet the requirement to address the conflict.
Option B. Hide the interest until the assignment ends
Why it is wrong: Concealment prevents the client from understanding a material conflict.
Option C. Disclose and appropriately manage the conflict — Correct answer
Option D. Treat the engagement fee as a conflict waiver
Why it is wrong: Payment of a fee does not automatically waive conflict obligations.
Answer: C. The merchant banker should disclose and appropriately manage the conflict under the Code of Conduct. Remember: Conflicts require transparent handling rather than silent acceptance.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Assuming an undisclosed conflict becomes harmless when the client pays the fee. Consider what the client needs to know to assess the adviser’s position.
IX-047mediumapplication
Q13A lawful demand requires client information held by a merchant banker. The client has not consented. How does the confidentiality rule apply?
Option A. Disclosure required by law is an exception — Correct answer
Option B. Information becomes freely publishable thereafter
Why it is wrong: A lawful disclosure does not make unrelated public disclosure unrestricted.
Option C. Client refusal always overrides the law
Why it is wrong: The conduct rule expressly recognises disclosures required by law.
Option D. Only oral disclosure is legally permitted
Why it is wrong: The confidentiality rule does not create an oral-only exception.
Answer: A. Disclosure required by law is an exception to the prior-permission requirement for confidential client information. Remember: Confidentiality does not authorise ignoring a legal disclosure requirement.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Treating confidentiality as absolute even when disclosure is legally required. Distinguish a legal disclosure obligation from voluntary sharing.
IX-048mediumapplication
Q14Which certification combination is required for the compliance officer of a fresh merchant-banker applicant under the revised circular?
Option A. NISM Series IX and Series VIII
Why it is wrong: Series VIII does not replace the required Series III-A compliance certification.
Option B. NISM Series IX and Series III-A — Correct answer
Option C. NISM Series VIII and Series V-A
Why it is wrong: This pair omits both certifications specified for this role.
Option D. NISM Series III-A and Series XII
Why it is wrong: Series XII does not replace the required Series IX merchant-banking certification.
Answer: B. The fresh applicant’s compliance officer must hold both NISM Series IX and NISM Series III-A certifications under the revised circular. Remember: The compliance-officer requirement combines activity-specific and compliance certifications.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Assuming any two securities-market certifications meet the specified requirement. Match both merchant-banking knowledge and non-fund compliance knowledge.
IX-049mediumregulatory
Q15A business head prevents the compliance officer from independently checking a proposed mandate. Which conduct requirement is most directly affected?
Option A. Adequate freedom and powers for compliance — Correct answer
Option B. Delegating the compliance decision to the client
Why it is wrong: The client cannot replace the merchant banker’s empowered internal compliance function.
Option C. Paying the compliance officer a success fee
Why it is wrong: A success fee does not identify or resolve the obstruction of compliance authority.
Option D. Restricting compliance review to completed deals
Why it is wrong: Review only after completion does not give the officer adequate powers over the proposed mandate.
Answer: A. The conduct requirement is affected because the compliance officer must have adequate freedom and powers to discharge the role. Remember: A compliance role must be supported with practical authority and independence.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Treating appointment of a compliance officer as sufficient without enabling the work. Think about whether the control function can actually perform its job.
IX-050mediumapplication
Q16A fresh Category II applicant has ₹10 crore net worth and ₹2 crore liquid net worth. Which capital requirement is unmet?
Option A. The ₹12.5 crore Category I liquid minimum
Why it is wrong: The Category I liquid-net-worth threshold does not apply to this applicant.
Option B. The ₹50 crore Category I minimum
Why it is wrong: This is a Category II application, so the Category I threshold does not apply.
Option C. The ₹2.5 crore liquid-net-worth minimum — Correct answer
Option D. The ₹10 crore net-worth minimum
Why it is wrong: The applicant’s stated net worth exactly meets that threshold.
Answer: C. The applicant falls short of the ₹2.5 crore Category II liquid-net-worth minimum even though it meets the ₹10 crore net-worth minimum. Remember: Meeting net worth does not automatically satisfy liquid net worth.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Treating the two capital requirements as the same test. Test net worth and liquid net worth separately for the applicant’s category.
IX-051mediumapplication
Q17An existing merchant banker plans its Category I transition with ₹25 crore net worth and ₹6.25 crore liquid net worth. Which capital phase do these figures meet?
Option A. Phase I, but not the final Phase II thresholds — Correct answer
Option B. Both Phase I and the final Phase II thresholds
Why it is wrong: Phase II requires the higher Category I figures of ₹50 crore and ₹12.5 crore.
Option C. Neither phase because all firms needed ₹50 crore in 2026
Why it is wrong: This ignores the current transition arrangements for existing registrants.
Option D. Only Category II’s final capital thresholds
Why it is wrong: These are the specified Category I Phase I figures, not merely a Category II classification.
Answer: A. These figures meet Category I Phase I, while the final Phase II requires ₹50 crore net worth and ₹12.5 crore liquid net worth. Remember: Existing registrants must plan for both transitional capital milestones.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Assuming the first transitional threshold is the permanent final requirement. Distinguish the first transitional milestone from the final milestone.
IX-052hardapplication
Q18Eligible unencumbered assets have book values of ₹4 crore cash and ₹10 crore government securities. What liquid value results after the prescribed asset haircuts?
Option A. ₹4 crore
Why it is wrong: This excludes government securities even though they are an eligible asset class.
Option B. ₹14 crore
Why it is wrong: This ignores the haircut on government securities.
Option C. ₹13 crore — Correct answer
Option D. ₹12.6 crore
Why it is wrong: This incorrectly applies the government-securities haircut to cash as well.
Answer: C. The liquid value is ₹13 crore because cash has a zero haircut and government securities have a 10% haircut. Cash value = ₹4 crore. Government-securities value = ₹10 crore × 90% = ₹9 crore. Total = ₹13 crore, assuming these are the only relevant assets and no further adjustments apply. Remember: Liquid-net-worth computation depends on eligible assets after their prescribed haircuts.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Applying one haircut to the entire portfolio instead of the asset-specific rates. Apply the appropriate haircut to each asset class separately.
IX-053hardnumerical
Q19A merchant banker has ₹15 crore liquid net worth and ₹260 crore underwriting obligations. Under the revised ceiling, how much additional capacity remains?
Option A. ₹300 crore
Why it is wrong: This is the total ceiling before subtracting existing obligations.
Option B. ₹260 crore
Why it is wrong: This repeats existing obligations rather than calculating unused capacity.
Option C. ₹15 crore
Why it is wrong: This uses liquid net worth itself rather than the permitted multiple and existing obligations.
Option D. ₹40 crore — Correct answer
Answer: D. Additional capacity is ₹40 crore under the revised liquid-net-worth ceiling. Total ceiling = 20 × ₹15 crore = ₹300 crore. Remaining capacity = ₹300 crore − ₹260 crore = ₹40 crore, assuming no other obligations or restrictions. Remember: Available underwriting capacity is the permitted total less existing obligations.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Using total capacity as though none of it is already committed. Find the total permitted ceiling before deducting commitments already outstanding.
IX-054hardnumerical
Q20A merchant banker proposes outsourcing offer-document preparation and due diligence, while reviewing only the final summary. What does the current outsourcing framework require?
Option A. Retain these core activities rather than outsource them — Correct answer
Option B. Outsource them if the vendor charges no fee
Why it is wrong: A zero fee does not change the nature of the core activities.
Option C. Outsource them if the client signs a waiver
Why it is wrong: A client waiver does not remove the prohibition on outsourcing core activities.
Option D. Outsource them if the vendor accepts all liability
Why it is wrong: A vendor contract cannot transfer away the merchant banker’s regulatory responsibility.
Answer: A. These core activities must be retained because the outsourcing framework excludes due diligence and offer-related document preparation from outsourcing. Remember: Core merchant-banking duties cannot be delegated away through outsourcing contracts.
Hint, shown before you answer in practice mode: Common mistake: Assuming a vendor’s indemnity makes a prohibited outsourcing arrangement acceptable. Distinguish support services from activities central to the regulated role.
IX-055hardapplication
Registration, Code of Conduct & General Obligations of Merchant Bankers in India: common questions
How many practice questions are there on Registration, Code of Conduct & General Obligations of Merchant Bankers in India?
20 questions, all written out on this page with the correct answer and why each other option is wrong. This unit is one of the 8 practice topics for NISM Series IX, which has 150 questions in total.
Are these real NISM Series IX questions on Registration, Code of Conduct & General Obligations of Merchant Bankers in India?
No. LearnNifty wrote every question from NISM's public syllabus. NISM does not publish its question bank, so nobody can offer you the real paper. Use these questions to check that an idea has gone in. Use the official NISM workbook to see what is examined.
Does negative marking apply to NISM Series IX?
Yes. NISM takes off 25% of a question's marks for a wrong answer. On a 1-mark question that is 0.25 marks off. A blank question earns nothing and loses nothing, so a wrong guess costs marks on this paper. Timed practice here uses the same rule.
Are these practice questions kept up to date?
Each question is written against the rules printed on this page, last checked on 5 September 2026. A Budget or a SEBI circular can change a rate, a lot size or an expiry day. If one of those rules changes before your exam, treat the questions that use it as out of date. Then check NISM's current workbook.
Issue Management – Important Terms
15 questions on Issue Management – Important Terms. Its quiz opens on that unit.
Open Issue Management – Important TermsPaper Trading Try it on the practice trading desk